Hvad er TCP/UDP protokol
Både TCP og
UDP stå for forskellige måder at sende data over et TCP /IP-
netværk . Blandt de TCP /IP- protokollerne, repræsenterer disse to
hovedparten af netværkstrafik på Internettet. Begge disse
protokoller bruges af programmer til at kommunikere data , men med
forskellige niveauer af sikkerhed , og hver med sine egne særlige
fordele og risici.
TCP explained:
TCP står for Transmission Control Protocol .
TCP sætter op en forbindelse mellem to endepunkter , som en telefon
opkald , før du sender nogen konkrete data . Når en forbindelse er
lavet , TCP også holder de data, bestilt fra start til slut . Det
betyder, at nogle båndbredde bruges til at holde styr på
forbindelsen , hvilket gør TCP mere pålidelige , men mindre
effektiv.
UDP explained:
UDP står for User Datagram protokollen. UDP
kun garanterer, at hver " datagram " er sendt og modtaget
som en hel enhed , ligesom en e-mail kuvert . Datagrammer kan sendes
og modtages i vilkårlig rækkefølge , men giver ikke nogen
kvittering for levering . Da det ikke spor forbindelsen , UDP bruger
mindre båndbredde . Dette gør UDP mere effektivt , men mindre
pålidelig.
Conlusion & Compering:
UDP og TCP har deres plads i netværk . At
være en mere effektiv protokol , er UDP bruges til high-performance
opgaver , såsom online spil og løse web -adresser . At være en
mere pålidelig protokol , er TCP bruges til streaming indhold og
sikre transmissioner , som World Wide Web , medieafspillere og
sikkert netværk . Mange programmer bruger en blanding af begge
protokoller , udnytte hver en måde, der giver de bedste resultater.
07 February, 2015
23 March, 2010
how to kill active TCP connections
You could also use IPTables which works on all Linux distros.
For dropping traffic from a single host I use:
Just replace
For dropping traffic from a single host I use:
Code:
iptables -I INPUT -s 21 March, 2010
Free Public DNS Server
Service provider: Google
- 8.8.8.8
- 8.8.4.4
Service provider: ScrubIt
Public dns server address:
- 67.138.54.100
- 207.225.209.66
Service provider:dnsadvantage
Dnsadvantage free dns server list:
- 156.154.70.1
- 156.154.71.1
Service provider:OpenDNS
OpenDNS free dns server list:
- 208.67.222.222
- 208.67.220.220
Service provider: vnsc-pri.sys.gtei.net
Public Name server IP address:
- 4.2.2.1
- 4.2.2.2
- 4.2.2.3
- 4.2.2.4
- 4.2.2.5
- 4.2.2.6
18 July, 2009
Guide to CCNA Subnet C Mask
/25 -- 2 Subnets -- 126 Hosts/Subnet
| |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
/26 -- 4 Subnets -- 62 Hosts/Subnet
| |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
/27 -- 8 Subnets -- 30 Hosts/Subnet
| |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
/28 -- 16 Subnets -- 14 Hosts/Subnet
| |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
/29 -- 32 Subnets -- 6 Hosts/Subnet
|
/30 -- 64 Subnets -- 2 Hosts/Subnet
|
Quickguide to Subnet C Mask
| Hosts | Netmask | Amount of a Class C | |
|---|---|---|---|
| /30 | 4 | 255.255.255.252 | 1/64 |
| /29 | 8 | 255.255.255.248 | 1/32 |
| /28 | 16 | 255.255.255.240 | 1/16 |
| /27 | 32 | 255.255.255.224 | 1/8 |
| /26 | 64 | 255.255.255.192 | 1/4 |
| /24 | 256 | 255.255.255.0 | 1 |
| /23 | 512 | 255.255.254.0 | 2 |
| /22 | 1024 | 255.255.252.0 | 4 |
| /21 | 2048 | 255.255.248.0 | 8 |
| /20 | 4096 | 255.255.240.0 | 16 |
| /19 | 8192 | 255.255.224.0 | 32 |
| /18 | 16384 | 255.255.192.0 | 64 |
| /17 | 32768 | 255.255.128.0 | 128 |
| /16 | 65536 | 255.255.0.0 | 256 |
23 February, 2009
CCNA 1 module 3 Exam
1. What application layer protocol is commonly used to support for file transfers between a client and a server?
• HTML
• HTTP
• FTP
• Telnet
2. What are two forms of application layer software? (Choose two.)
• applications
• dialogs
• requests
• services
• syntax
3. A network administrator is designing a network for a new branch office of twenty-five users. What are the advantages of using a client-server model? (Choose two.)
• centralized administration
• does not require specialized software
• security is easier to enforce
• lower cost implementation
• provides a single point of failure
4. What is the purpose of resource records in DNS?
• temporarily holds resolved entries
• used by the server to resolve names
• sent by the client to during a query
• passes authentication information between the server and client
5. What is the automated service that matches resource names with the required IP address?
• HTTP
• SSH
• FQDN
• DNS
• Telnet
• SMTP
6. What three protocols operate at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
• ARP
• DNS
• PPP
• SMTP
• POP
• ICMP
7. What are three properties of peer-to-peer applications? (Choose three.)
• acts as both a client and server within the same communication.
• requires centralized account administration.
• hybrid mode includes a centralized directory of files.
• can be used in client-server networks.
• requires a direct physical connection between devices.
• centralized authentication is required.
8. Which application layer protocols correctly match a corresponding function? (Choose two.)
• DNS dynamically allocates IP addresses to hosts
• HTTP transfers data from a web server to a client
• POP delivers email from the client to the server email server
• SMTP supports file sharing
• Telnet provides a virtual connection for remote access
9. Which email components are used to forward mail between servers? (Choose two.)
• MDA
• IMAP
• MTA
• POP
• SMTP
• MUA
10. As compared to SSH, what is the primary disadvantage of telnet?
• not widely available
• does not support encryption
• consumes more network bandwidth
• does not support authentication
11. Which statements are correct concerning the role of the MTA in handling email? (Choose three.)
• routes email to the MDA on other servers
• receives email from the client’s MUA
• receives email via the POP3 protocol
• passes email to the MDA for final delivery
• uses SMTP to route email between servers
• delivers email to clients via the POP3 protocol
12. Which two protocols are used to control the transfer of web resources from a web server to a client browser? (Choose two.)
• ASP
• FTP
HTML
• HTTP
• HTTPS
• IP
13. A small home network has been installed to interconnect three computers together for gaming and file sharing. What two properties represent this network type? (Choose two.)
• User accounts are centralized.
• Security is difficult to enforce.
• Specialized operating system software is required.
• File permissions are controlled by a single computer.
• A computer that responds to a file sharing request is functioning as a server.
14. Which layer of the OSI model supplies services that allow user to interface with the network?
• physical
• session
• network
• presentation
• application
• transport
15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the destination port for the communication that is represented on line 5?
• 80
• 1261
• 15533
• 3912
• 65520
16. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)
• scalable
• one way data flow
• decentralized resources
• centralized user accounts
• resource sharing without a dedicated server
17. What application layer protocol describes the services that are used for file sharing in Microsoft networks?
• DHCP
• DNS
• SMB
• SMTP
• Telnet
18. What are two characteristics of clients in data networks? (Choose two.)
• use daemons
• initiate data exchanges
• are repositories of data
• may upload data to servers
• listen for requests from servers
19. What is the role of the OSI application layer?
• provides segmentation of data
• provides encryption and conversion of data
• provides the interface between the applications on either end of the network
• provides control of all the data flowing between the source and destination devices
20. How does the application layer on a server usually process multiple client request for services?
• ceases all connections to the service
• denies multiple connections to a single daemon
• suspends the current connection to allow the new connection
• uses support from lower layer functions to distinguish between connections to the service
CCNA 1 module 4 Exam
1. Based on the transport layer header shown in the diagram, which of the following statements describe the established session? (Choose two.)
• This is a UDP header.
• This contains a Telnet request.
• This contains a TFTP data transfer.
• The return packet from this remote host will have an Acknowledgement Number of 43693.
• This is a TCP header.
2. With TCP/IP data encapsulation, which range of port numbers identifies all well-known applications?
• 0 to 255
• 256 to 1022
• 0 to 1023
• 1024 to 2047
• 49153 to 65535
3. Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
• to indicate the correct router interface that should be used to forward a segment
• to identify which switch ports should receive or forward the segment
• to determine which Layer 3 protocol should be used to encapsulate the data
• to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application
• to allow the receiving host to assemble the packet in the proper order
4. Which OSI model layer is responsible for regulating the flow of information from source to destination, reliably and accurately?
• application
• presentation
• session
• transport
• network
5. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is using FTP to download a large file from Server 1. During the download process, Server 1 does not receive an acknowledgment from Host A for several bytes of transferred data. What action will Server 1 take as a result?
• create a Layer 1 jam signal
• reach a timeout and resend the data that needs to be acknowledged
• send a RESET bit to the host
• change the window size in the Layer 4 header
6. Why is flow control used for TCP data transfer?
• to synchronize equipment speed for sent data
• to synchronize and order sequence numbers so data is sent in complete numerical order
• to prevent the receiver from being overwhelmed by incoming data
• to synchronize window size on the server
• to simplify data transfer to multiple hosts
7. Which two options represent Layer 4 addressing? (Choose two.)
• identifies the destination network
• identifies source and destination hosts
• identifies the communicating applications
• identifies multiple conversations between the hosts
• identifies the devices communicating over the local media
8. Refer to the exhibit. In line 7 of this Wireshark capture, what TCP operation is being performed?
• session establishment
• segment retransmit
• data transfer
• session disconnect
• Bottom of Form
9. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information can be determined from the output that is shown? (Choose two.)
• The local host is using well-known port numbers to identify the source ports.
• A termination request has been sent to 192.135.250.10.
• Communication with 64.100.173.42 is using HTTP Secure.
• The local computer is accepting HTTP requests.
• 192.168.1.101:1042 is performing the three-way handshake with 128.107.229.50:80.
10. What is dynamically selected by the source host when forwarding data?
• destination logical address
• source physical address
• default gateway address
• source port
11. What are two features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Choose two.)
• flow control
• low overhead
• connectionless
• connection-oriented
• sequence and acknowledgements
12. What mechanism is used by TCP to provide flow control as segments travel from source to destination?
• sequence numbers
• session establishment
• window size
• acknowledgments
13. Which transport layer protocol provides low overhead and would be used for applications which do not require reliable data delivery?
• TCP
• IP
• UDP
• HTTP
• DNS
14. Which information is found in both the TCP and UDP header information?
• sequencing
• flow control
• acknowledgments
• source and destination
15. Which three features allow TCP to reliably and accurately track the transmission of data from source to destination?
• encapsulation
• flow control
• connectionless services
• session establishment
• numbering and sequencing
• best effort delivery
16. During a TCP communication session, if the packets arrive to the destination out of order, what will happen to the original message?
• The packets will not be delivered.
• The packets will be retransmitted from the source.
• The packets will be delivered and reassembled at the destination.
• The packets will be delivered and not reassembled at the destination.
17. Which is an important characteristic of UDP?
• acknowledgement of data delivery
• minimal delays in data delivery
• high reliability of data delivery
• same order data delivery
18. After a web browser makes a request to a web server that is listening to the standard port, what will be the source port number in the TCP header of the response from the server?
• 13
• 53
• 80
• 1024
• 1728
19. Which event occurs during the transport layer three-way handshake?
• The two applications exchange data.
• TCP initializes the sequence numbers for the sessions.
• UDP establishes the maximum number of bytes to be sent.
• The server acknowledges the bytes of data received from the client.
CCNA 1 module 5 Exam
1. In an IPv4 environment, what information is used by the router to forward data packets from one interface of a router to another?
• destination network address
• source network address
• source MAC address
• well known port destination address
2. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
• source and destination MAC
• source and destination application protocol
• source and destination port number
• source and destination IP address
3. In a connectionless system, which of the following is correct?
• The destination is contacted before a packet is sent.
• The destination is not contacted before a packet is sent.
• The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that indicates the packet was received.
• The destination sends an acknowledgement to the source that requests the next packet to be sent.
4. Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
• type-of-service
• identification
• flags
• time-to-live
• header checksum
5. Which portion of the network layer address does a router use to forward packets?
• host portion
• broadcast address
• network portion
• gateway address
6. Refer to the exhibit. Using the network in the exhibit, what would be the default gateway address for host A in the 192.133.219.0 network?
• 192.135.250.1
• 192.31.7.1
• 192.133.219.0
• 192.133.219.1
7. If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?
• The host is unable to communicate on the local network.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.
• The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network.
• There is no impact on communications.
8. What is the purpose of a default gateway?
• physically connects a computer to a network
• provides a permanent address to a computer
• identifies the network to which a computer is connected
• identifies the logical address of a networked computer and uniquely identifies it to the rest of the network
• identifies the device that allows local network computers to communicate with devices on other networks
9. What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
• dynamic
• interior
• static
• standard
10. When the destination network is not listed in the routing table of a Cisco router, what are two possible actions that the router might take? (Choose two.)
• The router sends an ARP request to determine the required next hop address.
• The router discards the packet.
• The router forwards the packet toward the next hop indicated in the ARP table.
• The router forwards the packet to the interface indicated by the source address.
• The router forwards the packet out the interface indicated by the default route entry.
11. What are the key factors to consider when grouping hosts into a common network? (Choose three.)
• gateways
• purpose
• physical addressing
• software version
• geographic location
• ownership
12. What is a component of a routing table entry?
• the MAC address of the interface of the router
• the destination Layer 4 port number
• the destination host address
• the next-hop address
13. Which intermediary devices could be used to implement security between networks? (Choose two.)
• router
• hub
• switch
• firewall
• access point
• bridge
14. What are three common problems with a large network? (Choose three.)
• too few broadcasts
• performance degradation
• security issues
• limited management responsibility
• host identification
• protocol compatibility
15. Refer to the exhibit. All devices shown in the exhibit have factory default settings. How many broadcast domains are represented in the topology that is shown?
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 7
• 8
11
16. Which three statements are true about routes and their use? (Choose three.)
If no route to the destination network is found, the packet is returned to the previous router.
If the destination network is directly connected, the router forwards the packet to the destination host.
• If multiple network entries exist for the destination network, the most general route is used to forward the packet.
• If no route exists for the destination network and a default route is present, the packet is forwarded to the next-hop router.
• If the originating host has a default gateway configured, the packet for a remote network can be forwarded using that route.
• If a host does not have a route manually configured for the destination network, the host will drop the packet.
17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem and needs to determine the address that is used to forward network packets out the network. Using the netstat -r command, the administrator would identify which address as the address to which all hosts send packets that are destined for an outside network?
• 10.10.10.26
• 127.0.0.1
• 10.10.10.6
• 10.10.10.1
• 224.0.0.0
18. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator notices that there are too many broadcasts on the network. What two steps can the network administrator take to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)
• Replace S2 with a router.
• Place all servers on S1.
• Disable TCP/IP broadcasts.
• Subnet the 192.168.0.0 /24 network.
• Disable all unused interfaces on the switches.
19. Refer to the exhibit. The network in the exhibit is fully operational. What two statements correctly describe the routing for the topology that is shown? (Choose two.)
• 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 10.0.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 10.0.0.0 network.
• 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R1 to route a packet from the 192.168.12.0 network to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 172.16.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R3 to route a packet from the 10.0.0.0 to the 172.16.0.0 network.
• 192.168.0.1 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
• 192.168.0.2 is the next-hop address that is used by R2 to route a packet from the 172.16.0.0 network to the 192.168.12.0 network.
20. What two characteristics are commonly associated with dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• require no device configuration
• provide routers with up-to-date routing tables
• require less processing power than static routes require
• consume bandwidth to exchange route information
• prevent manual configuration and maintenance of the routing table
21. What statement describes the purpose of a default route?
• A host uses a default route to transfer data to another host on the same network segment.
• A host uses a default route to forward data to the local switch as the next hop to all destinations.
• A host uses a default route to identify the Layer 2 address of an end device on the local network.
• A host uses a default route to transfer data to a host outside the local network when no other route to the destination exists.
22 February, 2009
CCNA 1 module 11 Exam
1. Users in the network are experiencing slow response time when doing file transfers to a remote server. What command could be issued to determine if the router has experienced any input or output errors?
• show running-config
• show startup-config
• show interfaces
• show ip route
• show version
• show memory
2. Refer to the exhibit. A technician applies the configuration in the exhibit to a clean router. To verify the configuration, the technician issues the show running-config command in the CLI session with the router. What lines should the technician expect to see in the router output from the show running-config command?
• enable password classline console 0password ccna
• enable secret ciscoenable password classline console 0password ccna
• enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0enable password classline console 0password ccna
• enable secret ciscoenable password 7 14141E0A1F17line console 0password 7 020507550A
• enable secret 5 $1$v0/3$QyQWmJyT7zCa/yaBRasJm0enable password 7 14141E0A1F17line console 0password 7 020507550A
3. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator on HostA has problems accessing the FTP server. Layer three connectivity testing was successful from HostA to the S1 interface of RouterB. Which set of commands will allow the network administrator to telnet to RouterB and run debug commands?
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 4
RouterB(config-if)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0 2
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line vty 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-line)# password cisco
RouterB(config-line)# login
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
• RouterB(config)# enable secret class
RouterB(config)# line aux 0
RouterB(config-vty)# password cisco
RouterB(config-vty)# login
4. Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown for the show ip route command executed on Router A. What does the IP address 192.168.2.2 represent?
• Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
• Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
• IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
• IP assigned to the serial port on Router B
5. What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?
• Router# name Fontana
• Router# hostname Fontana
• Router(config)# name Fontana
• Router(config)# hostname Fontana
6. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
• Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
• Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
• Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2 7. Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?
• NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
• NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
• NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
• NA-SW1(config-if)# description description
• Gateway for the 192.168.1.0 network
• Gateway for the 192.168.3.0 network
• IP assigned to the serial port on Router A
• IP assigned to the serial port on Router B
5. What command is used to change the default router name to Fontana?
• Router# name Fontana
• Router# hostname Fontana
• Router(config)# name Fontana
• Router(config)# hostname Fontana
6. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
• Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
• Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224
• Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000
• Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2 7. Refer to the exhibit. What additional command is required to allow remote access to this switch?
• NA-SW1(config-if)# no shutdown
• NA-SW1(config)# enable password password
• NA-SW1(config)# ip default-gateway address
• NA-SW1(config-if)# description description
8. When network services fail, which port is most often used to access a router for management purposes?
AUX
Ethernet
• Console
Telnet
SSH
9. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
• Telnet
• Console
• AUX
• SSH
AUX
Ethernet
• Console
Telnet
SSH
9. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a router to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
• Telnet
• Console
• AUX
• SSH
10. In a Cisco router, when do changes made to the running-configuration take effect?
• after a system restart
• as the commands are entered
• when logging off the system
• when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration
• after a system restart
• as the commands are entered
• when logging off the system
• when the configuration is saved to the startup-configuration
11. Refer to the exhibit. Which names correctly identify the CLI mode represented by the prompt for Switch-East4#? (Choose two.)
• line configuration mode
• user executive mode
• global configuration mode
• privileged executive mode
• interface configuration mode
• enable mode
12. Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)
• hot keys
• context-check
• context-sensitive
• structured check
• command override
• command syntax check
• line configuration mode
• user executive mode
• global configuration mode
• privileged executive mode
• interface configuration mode
• enable mode
12. Which three terms correctly define the forms of help available within the Cisco IOS? (Choose three.)
• hot keys
• context-check
• context-sensitive
• structured check
• command override
• command syntax check
13. Which combination of keys would be used at the CLI prompt to interrupt a ping or traceroute process?
• Ctrl-C
• Ctrl-P
• Ctrl-R
• Ctrl-Shift-6
• Ctrl-Z
• Ctrl-C
• Ctrl-P
• Ctrl-R
• Ctrl-Shift-6
• Ctrl-Z
14. Refer to the exhibit. What command will place the router into the correct mode to configure an appropriate interface to connect to a LAN?
• UBAMA# configure terminal
• UBAMA(config)# line vty 0 4
• UBAMA(config)# line console 0
• UBAMA(config)# interface Serial 0/0/0
• UBAMA(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
15. On a Cisco router, which interface would be used to make the initial configuration?
• Console Port
16. Refer to the exhibit. A student is responsible for the IP addressing, configuration and connectivity testing of the network shown in the graphic. A ping from host B to host C results in a destination unreachable but a ping from host B to host A was successful. What two reasons could account for this failure based on the graphic and partial router output for the Dallas router? (Choose two.)
• The host A is turned off.
• The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is shutdown.
• The LAN cable is disconnected from host B.
• The S0/0/1 IP address of Dallas is improperly configured.
• The Fa0/0 interface on Dallas is in a different subnet than host B.
• The clock rate is missing on the serial link between Dallas and NYC.
CCNA 1 module 10 Exam
1. Refer to the exhibit. A student working in the lab selects a cable that is wired as shown. Which connection types can successfully be made with this cable? (Choose two.)
• connecting a PC to a router’s console port
• connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
• connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
• connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
• connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds
• connecting a PC to a router’s console port
• connecting two routers together via their fast ethernet ports
• connecting two switches together at gigabit speeds
• connecting a PC to a switch at Gigabit Ethernet speeds
• connecting two devices with the same interface type at Fast Ethernet speeds
2. Which option identifies the primary interface which would be used for initial configuration of a Cisco router?
• AUX interface
• Ethernet interface
• serial interface
• console interface
3. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
• greater distances per cable run
• lower installation cost
• limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
• durable connections
• greater bandwidth potential
• easily terminated
4. A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
• STP
• UTP
• coaxial
• single-mode fiber
• multimode fiber
5. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?
• loss of signal strength as distance increases
• time for a signal to reach its destination
• leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
• strengthening of a signal by a networking device
• AUX interface
• Ethernet interface
• serial interface
• console interface
3. What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
• greater distances per cable run
• lower installation cost
• limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
• durable connections
• greater bandwidth potential
• easily terminated
4. A network administrator is required to use media in the network that can run up to 100 meters in cable length without using repeaters. The chosen media must be inexpensive and easily installed. The installation will be in a pre-existing building with limited cabling space. Which type of media would best meet these requirements?
• STP
• UTP
• coaxial
• single-mode fiber
• multimode fiber
5. What does the term “attenuation” mean in data communication?
• loss of signal strength as distance increases
• time for a signal to reach its destination
• leakage of signals from one cable pair to another
• strengthening of a signal by a networking device
6. How many host addresses may be assigned on each subnetwork when using the 130.68.0.0 network address with a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0?
• 30
• 256
• 2046
• 2048
• 4094
• 4096
7. Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0
8. A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248
9. What type of network cable is used between a terminal and a console port?
• cross-over
• straight-through
• rollover
• patch cable
10. Which device is used to create or divide broadcast domains?
• hub
• switch
• bridge
• router
• repeater
11. Refer to the exhibit. What destination IP address will PC1 place in the header for a packet destined for PC2?
• 192.168.1.1
• 192.168.2.1
• 192.168.2.2
• 192.168.3.1
• 192.168.3.54
12. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the IP configuration shown, what would be the result of Host A and Host B attempting to communicate outside the network segment?
• both host A and B would be successful
• host A would be successful, host B would fail
• host B would be successful, host A would fail
• both Host A and B would fail
13. Which three types of connectors are commonly associated with Cisco’s V.35 serial cables? (Choose three.)
• RJ 11
• DB 60
• Winchester 15 pin
• DB 9
• smart serial
• RJ 45
14. Refer to the exhibit. How many subnets are required to support the network that is shown?
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
15. What are three common methods for setting a UTP Ethernet port to MDI or MDIX operation? (Choose three.)
• direct configuration of the device
• cable color code association
• cable selection and configuration
• use of cable testers to determine pinouts
• the enabling of the mechanism to electrically swap the transmit and receive pairs
• the automatic detection and negotiating of MDI/MDIX operation of the port
16. Which three statements are true about the role of routers in the network? (Choose three.)
• They propagate broadcasts.
• They enlarge collision domains.
• They segment broadcast domains.
• They interconnect different network technologies.
• Each router interface requires a separate network or subnet.
• They maintain a common frame format between LAN and WAN interfaces.
17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has decided to use packet capture software to evaluate all traffic from the student subnet on the way to the Internet. To ensure that all packets are captured, what network device should be used to connect the monitoring station to the network between R1 and R2?
• router
• hub
• switch
• wireless access point
18. Refer to the exhibit. Assume that all devices are using default settings. How many subnets are required to address the topology that is shown?
• 1
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 7
19. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the exhibited topology? (Choose three.)
• Hosts B and C are in the same subnet.
• Five broadcast domains are present.
• Host B is using a crossover cable to connect to the router.
• Four broadcast domains are present.
• Five networks are shown.
• Host B is using a rollover cable to connect to the router.
20. To establish a console connection from a computer to a Cisco router, which cable wiring option would be used?
• crossover cable
• straight through cable
• rollover cable
• V.35 cable
21. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements identify the type of cabling that would be used in the segments that are shown? (Choose three.)
• Segment 1 uses backbone cabling.
• Segment 1 uses a patch cable.
• Segment 3 uses patch cabling.
• Segment 3 uses vertical cabling.
• Segment 3 uses horizontal cabling.
• Segment 4 uses vertical cabling.
22. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician has been allocated the 192.168.1.0/24 private IP address range for use in the network that shown in the exhibit. Which subnet mask would be used to meet the host requirements for segment A of this internetwork?
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248
21 February, 2009
CCNA 1 module 9 Exam
1. In the graphic, Host A has reached 50% completion in sending a 1 KB Ethernet frame to Host D when Host B wishes to transmit its own frame to Host C. What must Host B do?
• Host B can transmit immediately since it is connected on its own cable segment.
• Host B must wait to receive a CSMA transmission from the hub, to signal its turn.
• Host B must send a request signal to Host A by transmitting an interframe gap.
• Host B must wait until it is certain that Host A has completed sending its frame.
2. Ethernet operates at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
• Network layer
• Transport layer
• Physical layer
• Application layer
• Session layer
• Data-link layer
3. Which of the following describe interframe spacing? (Choose two.)
• -the minimum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame.
• the maximum interval, measured in bit-times, that any station must wait before sending another frame.
• the 96-bit payload padding inserted into a frame to achieve a legal frame size
• the 96-bit frame padding transmitted between frames to achieve proper synchronization
• -the time allowed for slow stations to process a frame and prepare for the next frame.
• the maximum interval within which a station must send another frame to avoid being considered unreachable
4. What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)
• addressing
• error detection
• frame delimiting
• port identification
• path determination
• IP address resolution
5. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
• The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode. <—
• The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
• The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
• The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.
6. What are three functions of the upper data link sublayer in the OSI model? (Choose three.)
• recognizes streams of bits
• identifies the network layer protocol.
• makes the connection with the upper layers.
• identifies the source and destination applications
• insulates network layer protocols from changes in physical equipment.
• determines the source of a transmission when multiple devices are transmitting
7. What does the IEEE 802.2 standard represent in Ethernet technologies?
• MAC sublayer
• Physical layer
• Logical Link Control sublayer
• Network layer
8. Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?
• A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
• A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
• A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
• A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.
• A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
• A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
• A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
• A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.
9. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly matches the frame field type with the contents that frame field includes?
• header field - preamble and stop frame
• data field - network layer packet
• data field - physical addressing
• trailer field - FCS and SoF
• header field - preamble and stop frame
• data field - network layer packet
• data field - physical addressing
• trailer field - FCS and SoF
10. Host A has an IP address of 172.16.225.93 and a mask of 255.255.248.0. Host A needs to communicate with a new host whose IP is 172.16.231.78. Host A performs the ANDing operation on the destination address. What two things will occur? (Choose two.)
• Host A will change the destination IP to the IP of the nearest router and forward the packet.
• Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of its default gateway.
• A result of 172.16.225.0 will be obtained.
• Host A will broadcast an ARP request for the MAC of the destination host.
• A result of 172.16.224.0 will be obtained.
• A result of 172.16.225.255 will be obtained.
11 Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
• Collisions can decrease network performance.
• It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.
• Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
• CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.
12. Ethernet operates at which layer of the TCP/IP network model?
• application
• physical
• transport
• internet
• data link
• network access
• application
• physical
• transport
• internet
• data link
• network access
13. What is the primary purpose of ARP?
• translate URLs to IP addresses
• resolve IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses
• provide dynamic IP configuration to network devices
• convert internal private addresses to external public addresses
14. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
• No collisions will occur on this link.
• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.
15. Refer to the exhibit. Host_A is attempting to contact Server_B. Which statements correctly describe the addressing Host_A will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
• A packet with the destination IP of Router_B.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Switch_A.
• A packet with the destination IP of Router_A.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Router_A.
• A packet with the destination IP of Server_B.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.
• A frame with the destination MAC address of Server_B.
16 Which statements correctly describe MAC addresses? (Choose three.)
• dynamically assigned
• copied into RAM during system startup
• layer 3 address
• contains a 3 byte OUI
• 6 bytes long
• 32 bits long
17. Which two features make switches preferable to hubs in Ethernet-based networks? (Choose two.)
• reduction in cross-talk
• minimizing of collisions
• support for UTP cabling
• division into broadcast domains
• increase in the throughput of communications
• reduction in cross-talk
• minimizing of collisions
• support for UTP cabling
• division into broadcast domains
• increase in the throughput of communications
18. What are the two most commonly used media types in Ethernet networks today? (Choose two.)
• coaxial thicknet
• copper UTP
• coaxial thinnet
• optical fiber
• shielded twisted pair
19. Convert the binary number 10111010 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
• 85
• 90
• -BA
• A1
• B3
• 1C
20. After an Ethernet collision, when the backoff algorithm is invoked, which device has priority to transmit data?
• the device involved in the collision with the lowest MAC address
• the device involved in the collision with the lowest IP address
• any device in the collision domain whose backoff timer expires first
• those that began transmitting at the same time
20 February, 2009
CCNA 1 module 8 Exam
1 Which type of cable run is most often associated with fiber-optic cable?
2 What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
3 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
4 What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
5 In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
6 In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
7 What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
8 When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
9 Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
10 An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
11 Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
12.Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
13.Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
14.What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)
15.With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
16. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
17. Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?
18. What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
- -backbone cable
- horizontal cable
- patch cable
- work area cable
2 What is a primary role of the Physical layer in transmitting data on the network?
- -create the signals that represent the bits in each frame on to the media
- provide physical addressing to the devices
- determine the path packets take through the network
- control data access to the media
3 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Category 5 cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between Host A and Host B?
- coax cable
- rollover cable
- -crossover cable
- straight-through cable
4 What is considered a benefit of wireless as a media choice?
- -more host mobility
- lower security risks
- reduced susceptibility to interference
- less impact of the surroundings on the effective coverage area
5 In LAN installations where potential electrical hazards or electromagnetic interference may be present, what type of media is recommended for backbone cabling?
- coax
- -fiber
- Cat5e UTP
- Cat6 UTP
- STP
6 In most business LANs, which connector is used with twisted-pair networking cable?
- BNC
- RJ-11
- -RJ-45
- Type F
7 What is a possible effect of improperly applying a connector to a network cable?
- Data will be forwarded to the wrong node.
- -Data transmitted through that cable may experience signal loss.
- An improper signaling method will be implemented for data transmitted on that cable.
- The encoding method for data sent on that cable will change to compensate for the improper connection.
8 When is a straight-through cable used in a network?
- when connecting a router through the console port
- when connecting one switch to another switch
- -when connecting a host to a switch
- when connecting a router to another router
9 Which OSI layer is responsible for binary transmission, cable specification, and physical aspects of network communication?
- Presentation
- Transport
- Data Link
- -Physical
10 An installed fiber run can be checked for faults, integrity, and the performance of the media by using what device?
- light injector
- -OTDR
- TDR
- multimeter
11 Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)
- -It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
- Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
- It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
- It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
- -It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling.
12.Which method of signal transmission uses radio waves to carry signals?
- electrical
- optical
- -wireless
- acoustic
13.Which of the following is a characteristic of single-mode fiber-optic cable?
- generally uses LEDs as the light source
- relatively larger core with multiple light paths
- less expensive than multimode
- -generally uses lasers as the light source
14.What are three measures of data transfer? (Choose three.)
- -goodput
- frequency
- amplitude
- -throughput
- crosstalk
- -bandwidth
15.With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
- -the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
- the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
- the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
- the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously
16. With the use of unshielded twisted-pair copper wire in a network, what causes crosstalk within the cable pairs?
- -the magnetic field around the adjacent pairs of wire
- the use of braided wire to shield the adjacent wire pairs
- the reflection of the electrical wave back from the far end of the cable
- the collision caused by two nodes trying to use the media simultaneously
17. Which fiber connector supports full duplex Ethernet?
- opt1
- opt2
- -opt3
- opt4
18. What characteristic of UTP cable helps reduce the effects of interference?
- the metal braiding in the shielding
- the reflective cladding around core
- -the twisting of the wires in the cable
- the insulating material in the outer jacket
18 February, 2009
CCNA 1 module 7 Exam
1.Which three factors should be considered when implementing a Layer 2 protocol in a network? (Choose three.)
the Layer 3 protocol selected
>the geographic scope of the network
the PDU defined by the transport layer
>the physical layer implementation
>the number of hosts to be interconnected
2.Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?
00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
>00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
00-12-3f-32-05-af
3.Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)
>non-deterministic
>less overhead
one station transmits at a time
>collisions exist
devices must wait their turn
token passing
4.What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
>Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.
5.What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
network layer addressing
>media sharing
application processes
>logical topology
intermediary device function
6.What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
>Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
>defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
>Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions
7. Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
>Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
>Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.
8.A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?
logical topology
>physical topology
cable path
wiring grid
access topology
9.What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
is used as a padding for data
>is used for timing synchronization
is used to identify the source address
is used to identify the destination address
10.What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
>Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
>Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data
11.Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
All three networks use CSMA/CA
None of the networks require media access control.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.
12.Refer to the exhibit. How many CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?
1
2
4
6
>8
16
the Layer 3 protocol selected
>the geographic scope of the network
the PDU defined by the transport layer
>the physical layer implementation
>the number of hosts to be interconnected
2.Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the network in the exhibit is converged meaning the routing tables and ARP tables are complete, which MAC address will Host A place in the destination address field of Ethernet frames destined for www.server?
00-1c-41-ab-c0-00
>00-0c-85-cf-65-c0
00-0c-85-cf-65-c1
00-12-3f-32-05-af
3.Which options are properties of contention-based media access for a shared media? (Choose three.)
>non-deterministic
>less overhead
one station transmits at a time
>collisions exist
devices must wait their turn
token passing
4.What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
Physical signal paths are defined by Data Link layer protocols.
>Logical topologies consist of virtual connections between nodes.
5.What determines the method of media access control? (Choose two.)
network layer addressing
>media sharing
application processes
>logical topology
intermediary device function
6.What is true regarding media access control? (Choose three.)
>Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD
>defined as placement of data frames on the media
contention-based access is also known as deterministic
802.11 utilizes CSMA/CD
>Data Link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media
controlled access contains data collisions
7. Which statements describe the logical token-passing topology? (Choose two.)
Network usage is on a first come, first serve basis.
>Computers are allowed to transmit data only when they possess a token.
Data from a host is received by all other hosts.
>Electronic tokens are passed sequentially to each other.
Token passing networks have problems with high collision rates.
8.A network administrator has been asked to provide a graphic representation of exactly where the company network wiring and equipment are located in the building. What is this type of drawing?
logical topology
>physical topology
cable path
wiring grid
access topology
9.What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
is used as a padding for data
>is used for timing synchronization
is used to identify the source address
is used to identify the destination address
10.What statements are true regarding addresses found at each layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
>Layer 2 may identify devices by a physical address burned into the network card
Layer 2 identifies the applications that are communicating
>Layer 3 represents a hierarchical addressing scheme
Layer 4 directs communication to the proper destination network
Layer 4 addresses are used by intermediary devices to forward data
11.Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?
All three networks use CSMA/CA
None of the networks require media access control.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.
12.Refer to the exhibit. How many CRC calculations will take place as traffic routes from the PC to the laptop?
1
2
4
6
>8
16
17 February, 2009
CCNA 1 module 6 Exam
Refer to the exhibit. Which network prefix will work with the IP addressing scheme shown in the graphic.
- /24
- /16
- /20
- /27
- /25
- /28
Which IPv4 subnetted addresses represent valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
- 172.16.4.127 /26
- 172.16.4.155 /26
- 172.16.4.193 /26
- 172.16.4.95 /27
- 172.16.4.159 /27
- 172.16.4.207 /27
Which statements are true regarding IP addressing? (Choose two.)
- NAT translates public addresses to private addresses destined for the Internet.
- Only one company is allowed to use a specific private network address space.
- Private addresses are blocked from public Internet by router.
- Network 172.32.0.0 is part of the private address space.
- IP address 127.0.0.1 can be used for a host to direct traffic to itself.
Which process do routers use to determine the subnet network address based upon a given IP address and subnet mask?
- binary adding
- hexadecimal anding
- binary division
- binary multiplication
- binary ANDing
Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could be the cause of the problem?
- The host subnet mask is incorrect.
- The default gateway is a network address.
- The default gateway is a broadcast address.
- The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.
What subnet mask would a network administrator assign to a network address of 172.30.1.0 if it were possible to have up to 254 hosts?
- 255.255.0.0
- 255.255.255.0
- 255.255.254.0
- 255.255.248.0
Which three IP addresses are private? (Choose three.)
- 172.168.33.1
- 10.35.66.70
- 192.168.99.5
- 172.18.88.90
- 192.33.55.89
- 172.35.16.5
Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
- This is a useable host address.
- This is a broadcast address.
- This is a network address.
- This is not a valid address.
A router interface has been assigned an IP address of 172.16.192.166 with a mask of 255.255.255.248. To which subnet does the IP address belong?
- 172.16.0.0
- 172.16.192.0
- 172.16.192.128
- 172.16.192.160
- 172.16.192.168
- 172.16.192.176
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?
- IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39
- IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
- IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
- IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
- IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1
Which of the following network devices are recommended to be assigned static IP addresses? (Choose three.)
- LAN workstations
- servers
- network printers
- routers
- remote workstations
- laptops
Which of the following are features of IPv6? (Choose three.)
- larger address space
- faster routing protocols
- data types and classes of service
- authentication and encryption
- improved host naming conventions
- same addressing scheme as IPv4
What is the primary reason for development of IPv6?
- security
- header format simplification
- expanded addressing capabilities
- addressing simplification
What two things will happen if a router receives an ICMP packet which has a TTL value of 1 and the destination host is several hops away? (Choose two.)
- The router will discard the packet.
- The router will decrement the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
- The router will send a time exceeded message to the source host.
- The router will increment the TTL value and forward the packet to the next router on the path to the destination host.
- The router will send an ICMP Redirect Message to the source host.
Refer to the exhibit. Why would the response shown be displayed after issuing the command ping 127.0.0.1 on a PC?
- The IP settings are not properly configured on the host.
- Internet Protocol is not properly installed on the host.
- There is a problem at the physical or data link layer.
- The default gateway device is not operating.
- A router on the path to the destination host has gone down.
How many bits make up an IPv4 address?
- 128
- 64
- 48
- 32
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?
- The router has an incorrect gateway.
- Host A has an overlapping network address.
- Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.
- Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.
- NAT is required for the host A network.
What three facts are true about the network portion of an IPv4 address? (Choose three.)
- identifies an individual device
- is identical for all hosts in a broadcast domain
- is altered as packet is forwarded
- varies in length
- is used to forward packets
- uses flat addressing
What is a group of hosts called that have identical bit patterns in the high order bits of their addresses?
- an internet
- a network
- an octet
- a radix
What is the network address of the host 172.25.67.99 /23 in binary?
- 10101100. 00011001.01000011.00000000
- 10101100. 00011001.01000011.11111111
- 10101100. 00011001.01000010.00000000
- 10101100. 00011001.01000010.01100011
- 10101100. 00010001.01000011. 01100010
- 10101100. 00011001.00000000.00000000
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has to develop an IP addressing scheme that uses the 192.168.1.0 /24 address space. The network that contains the serial link has already been addressed out of a separate range. Each network will be allocated the same number of host addresses. Which network mask will be appropriate to address the remaining networks?
- 255.255.255.248
- 255.255.255.224
- 255.255.255.192
- 255.255.255.240
- 255.255.255.128
- 255.255.255.252
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